It is inevitable that changes in government policy will result in both
winners and losers, just as changes in the non-governmental actions will. One
of the starting points I argue in my Honours class in welfare economics is
that, in terms of practical policy (as distinct from the conceptual benchmark
of a mythical social planner) the world is, always has been, and always will be
Pareto efficient, and so a rule that policy changes cannot impose costs on
anyone is tantamount to a rule that policy changes can never occur. But I think
we can suggest some guidelines for when government-imposed costs are justified.
The key issues are whether the policy is imposing costs on individuals or
corporate bodies, whether the policy is a direct appropriation of property or one
the imposed costs are indirect, and whether the policy is designed to improve
efficiency or serve some social objective. Let’s take each in turn.
- Is the cost imposed directly on individuals or on corporations? Takings from individuals require a higher threshold of benefit than takings from corporations. I don’t here mean to that corporations are somehow separate from the individuals who own them, or that their owners have lesser rights than other citizens; this is simply recognising the fact that company owners have the opportunity to diversify risk in their shareholdings, and hence to diversify the implications of government policy changes. A policy that forced lower electricity prices might wipe value from electricity companies, but add value to electricity buying companies as well as final consumers. If such a policy were efficiency increasing, there is no reason for it to impose significant costs on any diversified shareholder.
- Is the policy one that appropriates resources directly or one that changes the value of current assets? A direct takings, such as when the government uses compulsory purchase to acquire land for a highway, is a more serious use of government power than one that imposes costs indirectly through revaluations of assets, simply because a direct takings has the potential to impose far greater costs to an individual if their personal valuation of the asset is greatly in excess of its market value.
- Is the policy one that is designed to improve efficiency or to bring about social redistribution? In my view, the hurdle has to set very high before one can justify a direct or indirect takings to fund redistribution. This is not to say that social redistribution is not warranted, but rather the moral case for redistribution should be grounded in a transparent and honest policy that seeks to share the burden broadly rather than hiding the costs. Financing redistribution through indirect takings smacks too much of offering the other kid’s bat for my taste.
The proposed Labour policy does NOT set the the price below marginal cost.
ReplyDeleteAs I understand it, the Labour plan would pay the generators the marginal cost of generation (of that generation plant, not that of the whole market), plus a 'fair' rate of return on capital. So hydro power gets paid at the marginal cost of hydro, and thermal at the marginal cost of thermal, rather than hydro getting priced at the marginal cost of the most expensive generation (usually thermal) as present.
What about the the morality of a government policy that wipes value from a private company if that company was a slave owner? Should the owner be compensated for a change in law that make slavery illegal?
ReplyDeleteJohn Stuart Mill, of all people, said yes. Mill wrote this on the topic in his text "Principles of Political Economy":
Iniquitous as ... [“property in human beings”] is, yet when the state has expressly legalized it, and human beings, for generations, have been bought, sold, and inherited under sanction of law, it is another wrong, in abolishing the property, not to make full compensation.
If slave owners are to be compensated then all other cases look easy.
Peter, you are describing what the Labour plan would pay generators (but not quite). But look at the implication for consumers. The single-buyer agency cannot charge consumers different prices depending on where there power was generated, since electrons on the national grid don't know where their energy came from. And Labour have been quite clear that their plan is to pass on savings to consumers from not having hydro stations making profits based on their low operating costs. So it must be the case that they are proposing that consumers pay a price less than the marginal cost of the last unit produced. And also note that even within a hydro or thermal plant, there are increasing marginal costs to production and hence "super profits" as defined by the Labour document even if each station is paid its marginal cost. They are proposing eliminating super profits, so defined, and so they must be proposing average cost pricing.
ReplyDeleteJust noticed this post Seamus and I think this last comment is too strong. Did you look at the Greens policy? It envisages a form of progressive pricing whereby marginal usage would face the marginal cost. Think of it as a lump-sum transfer of x units of power at a cheap price.
ReplyDeleteYes, I saw this. Which is why my comment referred specifically to the "Labour Plan". To my mind, the Green plan is potentially a whole lot better than Labour's because I regard sub-MC pricing as the worst aspect of Labour's proposal. But it leaves me with two concerns:
ReplyDelete1. If they are truly proposing MC pricing, then the lower price is not a price, just a lump-sum transfer of income. Wouldn't it be easier to do that directly?
2. Nothing that I have seen in the discussion about "what is wrong in the electricity market" gives me any confidence that they would truly set marginal price equal to marginal cost, taking into account the opportunity cost of water and the capital cost of peaking plant amortised over peak periods only.